Nclex practice questions Quizlet related to the subject of the tumor, glomerulonephritis, hydrocele, claudication, and peripheral vascular disease.
Nclex Nursing Exam
- A child is admitted to the hospital after being diagnosed with stage II Wilm’s tumor. Which of the following statements represents this stage the best?
A. The tumor is under 3 cm in diameter and does not require chemotherapy.
B. The tumor was entirely removed and did not extend beyond the kidney.
C. Although the tumor spread beyond the kidney, it was totally removed.
D. The tumor has spread throughout the abdominal cavity and is unable to be removed.
Rationale: C. Wilm’s tumor staging is validated during surgery as follows: Stage I: The tumor is limited to the kidney and is completely resected; stage II: The tumor extends beyond the kidney but is completely resected; stage III: The non-hematogenous tumor is confined to the abdomen; stage IV: Hematogenous metastasis has occurred with spread beyond the abdomen, and stage V: Bilateral renal involvement is present at the time of diagnosis.
- A teen patient is admitted to the hospital by his doctor, who considers acute glomerulonephritis as the cause of his illness. Which of the following observations confirms this diagnosis? It’s possible that more than one solution is right.
A. Urine specific gravity of 1.040.
B. A total of 350 mL of urine was collected in 24 hours.
C. Brown (“tea-colored”) urine.
D. Generalized edema.
Rationale: A. Urine with a specific gravity of 1.040, a 24-hour pee output of 350 mL, and brown (“tea-colored”) urine. Acute glomerulonephritis is characterized by a high urine specific gravity due to oliguria, as well as a dark “tea-colored” urine due to the presence of significant volumes of red blood cells. There is periorbital edema, but a nephrotic syndrome, not acute glomerulonephritis, causes global edema.
- Acute glomerulonephritis is most usually caused by which of the following conditions?
A. Renal impairment caused by a congenital disease.
B. A previous group A Streptococcus infection within the last 10-14 days.
C. Viral infection of the glomeruli.
D. Nephrotic syndrome.
Rationale: B. The immunological response to a previous upper respiratory infection with group A Streptococcus is the most common cause of acute glomerulonephritis. Glomerular inflammation develops 10-14 days after infection, resulting in dark urine and body fluid retention. At the time of diagnosis, periorbital edema and hypertension are common symptoms.
- At one month of age, an infant with hydrocele is seen in the clinic for a follow-up appointment. Although the scrotum is smaller than it was at birth, fluid can still be seen when illuminated. Which of the following actions is most likely to be recommended by the doctor?
A. Massage the groin area twice daily until the fluid has disappeared.
B. Surgery referral to a surgeon.
C. There is no need for treatment because the fluid is reabsorbing naturally.
D. Keeping the infant flat and supine until the fluid is gone.
Rationale: C. A hydrocele is a fluid buildup in the scrotum caused by a patent tunica vaginalis. The transparent fluid is visible when the scrotum is illuminated with a pocket light. The fluid usually resorbs within the first few months of life, and no treatment is required. It would be ineffective to massage the area or place the infant in a supine posture. Surgery is not recommended.
- A patient with peripheral vascular disease is being cared for by a nurse (PVD). The patient’s hands and feet are burning and tingling, and he or she cannot bear any form of touch. Which of the following explanations is the most likely for these symptoms?
A. Nerve injury due to insufficient tissue perfusion.
B. Fluid excess causes nerve tissue compression.
C. Psychiatric instability causes sensory distortion.
D. Skin inflammation on the hands and feet.
Rationale: A. Nerve injury is common in patients with peripheral vascular disease due to insufficient tissue perfusion. PVD is not characterized by fluid excess. There is no evidence that the patient is suffering from a psychological disorder. PVD skin alterations are caused by a reduction in tissue perfusion rather than by primary inflammation.
- A patient in the cardiac unit is concerned about atherosclerosis-related risk factors. Which of the following is a hereditary risk factor for atherosclerosis development?
A. Family history of heart disease.
B. Overweight.
C. Smoking.
D. Age.
Rationale: A. A family history of heart disease is a hereditary risk factor that cannot be changed by changing one’s lifestyle. It’s been proven that having a first-degree relative with heart disease raises your risk. Being overweight and smoking are risk factors that can be reduced greatly by changing one’s lifestyle. Atherosclerosis risk grows with age, but it is not an inherited factor.
7. Claudication is a common symptom of peripheral vascular dysfunction. Which of the following claudication facts is correct?
A. It occurs when oxygen demand exceeds oxygen supply.
B. It is characterized by pain that happens frequently while at rest.
C. It’s caused by tissue hypoxia.
D. Cramping and weakness are common symptoms.
Rationale: A. It occurs when oxygen demand exceeds oxygen supply, C. It occurs as a result of tissue hypoxia, and D. It occurs as a result of tissue hypoxia. Cramping and weakness are common symptoms. Claudication is the pain a patient with peripheral vascular disease feels when the demand for oxygen in the leg muscles exceeds the supply. This is especially common during physical activity when the strain on muscular tissue increases. Cramping, weakness, and discomfort occur as the tissue becomes hypoxic.
- A nurse gives a patient with peripheral vascular disease discharge instructions. Which of the following are included in your guidelines?
A. When feasible, walk barefoot.
B. Keep your feet warm by using a heating pad.
C. Do not cross your legs.
D. Treat skin lesions that are at risk of infection with antibiotic ointment.
Rationale: C. Crossing the legs should be discouraged by patients with peripheral vascular disease because it can obstruct blood flow. Walking barefoot is not advised since foot protection is important to avoid injury and infection. Heating pads can harm you and make you more vulnerable to disease. A physician should examine and treat any skin lesions which are at risk of infection.
- A patient with the vasospastic disorder (Raynaud’s disease) complains of coldness and stiffness in his or her fingers. Which of the following statements better describes the patient?
A. An adolescent male.
B. An elderly woman.
C. A young woman.
D. An elderly man.
Rationale: C. Raynaud’s illness is most common in young women, and it’s often linked to rheumatic diseases like lupus and rheumatoid arthritis.
- A 23-year-old woman in her 27th week of pregnancy was admitted to the hospital and placed on total bed rest for six days. She has shortness of breath that is accompanied by chest pain. Which of the following is most likely to be the cause of her symptoms?
A. A myocardial infarction caused by atherosclerosis.
B. Deep vein thrombosis causes pulmonary embolism (DVT).
C. Anxiety attack brought on by concerns about the wellbeing of her baby.
D. Fluid excess causes congestive heart failure.
Rationale: B. Pulmonary embolism is the most common cause of rapid onset shortness of breath and chest discomfort in a hospitalized patient on prolonged bed rest. Both pregnancy and extended inactivity raise the risk of clot development in the legs’ deep veins. After that, the clots can break free and migrate to the lungs. Myocardial infarction and atherosclerosis, as well as congestive heart failure due to fluid overload, are rare in a 27-year-old woman. There’s no reason to think this patient has an anxiety issue. Though anxiousness could be a factor in her symptoms, the significance of a pulmonary embolism must be considered first.
