Gynecology test questions and rationale complete summary. During an Anatomy and Physiology class, the lecturer discussed the female reproductive system.
- Estrogen, one of the hormones regulating cyclic activities in the female reproductive system is responsible for which effect?
a. Increases the quantity and pH of cervical mucus, causing it to become thin and watery and can be stretched to a distance of 10-13 cm.
b. Inhibits the production of LH
c. Increases endometrial tortuosity
d. All of the above
The correct answer is A.
Effects of estrogen
- Inhibits the production of FSH
- Causes hypertrophy of the myometrium
- Affects the quantity and pH of cervical mucus, making it thin and watery and allowing it to be extended up to 10-13 cm.
Effects of Progesterone
- Inhibits the production of LH
- Increases endometrial tortuosity
- Increased endometrial secretions
- Facilitates transport of the fertilized ovum
- through the fallopian tubes
- Lennie Robredo, a 17-year-old girl, has been bleeding for less than two weeks. This disorder is a menstrual cycle anomaly known as:
The correct answer is A. Menstrual irregularities are a type of abnormal menstruation that occurs when a woman.
- The absence of menstrual flow is known as amenorrhea.
- Menstrual pain due to dysmenorrhea
- Oligomenorrhea (abnormally light menstruation)
- Excessive menstrual bleeding (menorrhagia)
- Metrorrhagia bleeding lasting less than two weeks
- The size of the pelvis is one element in having a normal delivery. During birthing, the pelvis acts as a pathway for the passenger (fetus). The best pelvis for childbirth is the
D is the right answer. The “normal” female pelvis is the gynaecoid. The intake has a nice curve to it. This is the best pelvis for giving birth.
Android pelvis of a “man” The posterior portion of the inlet is narrow and shallow, while the anterior portion is pointed.
Anthropoid the transverse diameter of this pelvis is narrow, while the anteroposterior (AP) diameter is bigger than normal.
Platypelloid the intake is oval, and the pelvis’ AP diameter is narrow.
- The distance of the head’s descent is determined by an important landmark of the pelvis known as
a. Linea terminalis
c. Ischial spines
d. Ischial tuberosities
The correct answer is C. The reference point for determining the station is the ischium’s spines (relationship of the fetal presenting part to the ischial spines). The station is zero when the fetal head is at the level of the ischial spines. It is -1 when it is 1 cm above the ischial spines and +1 when it is 1 cm below the ischial spines.
- The permanent cessation of menstruation is
B is the right answer. “Permanent cessation” is the essential word here. As a result, menopause is the correct response. Amenorrhea is the absence of menses for a short period of time. Menstruation with a low blood flow is known as oligomenorrhea. Hypomenorrhea is a condition in which menstruation lasts for an excessively short period of time.
Mrs. Marie, who is 16 weeks pregnant, goes to the health care facility with her only son, John, for a prenatal check-up. During the examination, the client revealed to the nurse that she had previously been pregnant twice. The first was with her only child, John, who was born at 35 weeks AOG, and the second was aborted at around 20 weeks AOG.
Mrs. Donna’s GTPAL score is based on the information gathered.
The correct answer is C. Gravida (G) denotes the number of pregnancies.
Term (T) refers to the number of full-term babies born (born at 37 weeks or after)
(P) – number of premature babies born (born before 37 weeks)
Abortion (A) – total number of natural or artificial abortions (pregnancy terminated before the age of viability). The viability period is 24 weeks.
The number of living children (L) is the number of children who are still alive.
G is three since Mrs. Marie has had two previous pregnancies and is currently pregnant (16 weeks). Her sole kid, John, was born at 35 weeks AOG, putting him in the preterm category. As a result, T equals 0 and P equals 1. The other pregnancy ended at 20 weeks AOG, which is considered an abortion, hence A=1. L=1 since Mark is her only living child. 30111, G=3 T=0 P=1 A=1 L=1 is her GTPAL score.
- The nurse discusses Mrs. Marie’s pregnancy discomforts with her. Which of the following would alert the nurse if the client complained?
a. Easy fatigability
b. Nausea and vomiting
c. Edema of the lower extremities
The correct answer is B. Morning sickness, which includes nausea and vomiting, occurs only in the first trimester of pregnancy (first 3 months). Hyperemesis gravidarum is a condition characterized by excessive nausea and vomiting that lasts longer than three months and necessitates rapid medical attention to avoid malnutrition and dehydration. Hyperemesis gravidarum is treated with D5NSS 3L administered every 24 hours and total bed rest. The physiologic anemia of pregnancy (physiologic meaning that it is normal during pregnancy, thus A is inaccurate) causes easy fatigability. Because of the probability of toxemia, edema in the upper extremities, not the lower extremities, should alarm the nurse, hence C is erroneous. Heartburn during pregnancy is caused by an increase in progesterone, which reduces gastric motility and causes a reversed peristaltic wave, resulting in regurgitation of stomach contents into the esophagus, creating irritation.